A male in his 60's had hypotension. In the presence of the medics, he had syncope and they recorded this ECG:
He arrived in the ED alert with a BP of 80/60 and heart rate of 80. Here is the ED ECG:
There is no RBBB here. So there are two possibilities: the RBBB has resolved, leaving only LAFB. Or the escape on the prehospital ECG was coming from the posterior fascicle, making it a appear as if there is RBBB. The conduction would go through the posterior fascicle quickly (giving r-waves in inferior leads, and q-wave in aVL), then it would proceed to the anterior wall and the right ventricle through myocardium (giving S-waves in inferior leads, R-wave in aVL, R-wave in V1, and S-waves in V5 and V6.
Whether this prehospital ECG represents junctional escape with LAFB and intermittent RBBB, or left posterior fascicular escape, is impossible to say.
The patient had sepsis as a diagnosis.
He arrived in the ED alert with a BP of 80/60 and heart rate of 80. Here is the ED ECG:
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Sinus with left anterior fascicular block |
There is no RBBB here. So there are two possibilities: the RBBB has resolved, leaving only LAFB. Or the escape on the prehospital ECG was coming from the posterior fascicle, making it a appear as if there is RBBB. The conduction would go through the posterior fascicle quickly (giving r-waves in inferior leads, and q-wave in aVL), then it would proceed to the anterior wall and the right ventricle through myocardium (giving S-waves in inferior leads, R-wave in aVL, R-wave in V1, and S-waves in V5 and V6.
Whether this prehospital ECG represents junctional escape with LAFB and intermittent RBBB, or left posterior fascicular escape, is impossible to say.
The patient had sepsis as a diagnosis.
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