Friday, May 30, 2025

If you saw this EKG completely isolated from clinical context, how would you interpret it?

Written by Willy Frick

This blog has repeatedly made the point that ECGs must always be interpreted in clinical context. But sometimes just for fun we like to try to scrutinize ECGs in a vacuum. It increases the difficulty level. Look at this ECG and try to figure out what it represents.

ECG 1
What do you think?









_______

Smith: I saw this before reading on, and was 95% certain it represented a reperfused OMI, vs. 5% for takotsubo.  I did not think LVH at all.  I see below that LVH was on Willy's ddx.  But LVH rarely has an upsloping ST segment, as is the case here.  There is also not a lot of voltage.  The echo may show LVH, but the ECG does not.  An upsloping ST segment, followed by a sudden downturn and a negative T-wave, is very typical of reperfusion.

This is identical to the pattern that Wellens described for the LAD territory.  But he did not know that it is a reperfusion pattern, and that when the patient had active pain, there was active occlusion. He also did not know that the same pattern can happen in inferior and or lateral leads.  And an analogous pattern (posterior reperfusion T-waves) can happen in right precordial leads as a reciprocal finding to T-wave inversion that would be recorded on the posterior wall if leads were placed there.  

The best criteria for LVH are relatively new*: Take the sum of the amplitude of the deepest S wave in any lead plus the S wave in lead V4.  If the deepest S-wave is in V4, then double that value.  If the total is greater than 2.3 in women, and greater than 2.8 in men, the LVH is diagnosed."  In this case, the deepest S-wave is V3.  V3 = 11. V4 = 9.  The sum is 20.  Therefore not LVH by ECG criteria.  I think also not by other voltage criteria.

Criteria are frequently falsely negative (or falsely positive).  Repolarization (ST depression and T-wave inversion, of the LVH morphology) is very helpful in making the ECG diagnosis of LVH, and also has prognostic significance, with four times the risk of cardiovascular disease at 7 year followup .

*Peguero JG et al. JACC 69(23)1694-1703; April 4, 2017.
__________



Willy: I knew the outcome before I saw the ECG, so I cannot give my honest first impression. The most likely differentials are reperfused inferolateral OMI, takotsubo, and left ventricular hypertrophy with repolarization abnormality. If I had to pick the most OMI-like feature, I would say down-up T waves in aVL which is always very suspicious for inferior OMI.

Fortunately for this patient, diagnosis was not difficult. He is a man in his late 50s with hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and prior stroke who presented with acute onset, severe substernal chest pain with dyspnea and diaphoresis. His presenting ECG was positive for STEMI on the conventional machine algorithm.

ECG 2

Cath lab was activated and he promptly underwent coronary angiography which showed acute thrombotic occlusion of distal LCx status post drug eluting stent. His initial troponin was undetectable, but there were no repeat measurements. 

ECG 1 was recorded after PCI, hence it does represent inferolateral reperfusion.

So why did ECG 1 look so confusing? I think if I had been blinded, I would have had a tough time deciding between inferolateral reperfusion and LVH. Answer: It's BOTH.

Apical 4 chamber shows inferoseptal wall on the left side of the image and anterolateral on the right

Apical 2 chamber shows inferior wall on the left side of the image and anterior on the right

Apical 3 chamber shows inferolateral wall on the left side of the image (hypokinetic) and anteroseptal on the right

This patient has severe left ventricular hypertrophy most prominent at the apex, possibly consistent with apical HCM (vs severe standard LVH). This explains why the ECG 1 is unusual looking. It shows inferolateral reperfusion layered on top of the patient's baseline LVH strain pattern, shown below in a prior ECG obtained during presentation for a non-cardiac complaint.

ECG 3: Prior baseline

Smith: notice that in this baseline ECG, the T-waves are all negative, without the upsloping ST segment (with the exception of V3, which is transitional between V2 and V4).

Wednesday, May 28, 2025

A sick elderly patient with nonspecific symptoms

 Written by Pendell Meyers

An elderly woman summoned EMS for generalized weakness and multiple vague complaints. She was confused and ill appearing.

Here is her EMS ECG:

What do you think?










Without other ECGs (below), the rhythm differential could include junctional/ventricular escape, or ventricular paced rhythm (with small or filtered-out pacing spikes), or other rhythms. 

Most importantly, the QRS duration is greater than 200 msec. The computerized QRSd is 218 msec. 

When over 200 msec, even during ventricular pacing, there is only a small list of possibilities: 

1) preexisting severe cardiomyopathy (with preexisting QRSd greater than 200)

2) acute hyperkalemia, and/or acute sodium channel blockade. 

No common bundle branch block pattern or paced rhythm should be able to cause a QRS duration greater than 200 msec. We should assume hyperK and/or sodium channel blockade until proven otherwise, and indeed the T waves have a peaked hyperkalemic morphology in many leads.


Here is her ECG on arrival at the ED:

Now we can see pacer spikes, with the same QRS morphology as the first ECG, meaning the first ECG was also paced.


An old ECG was available in the EMR from one month ago:

Also ventricular paced rhythm. Computer QRS duration 186 msec. Similar QRS morphology to the current ECGs, other than the absence of acutely superimposed hyperkalemic findings.


So, at baseline 1 month ago, she has a paced rhythm with QRS duration 186 msec (on the wider end of the bell curve for baseline paced rhythms). Today, something (likely hyperkalemia) has caused additional QRS widening.


Potassium returned at 7.4 mEq/L. 

The QRS duration improved with hyperkalemia treatment (ECG unavailable).

She was diagnosed with rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure. Final outcome is not available.


Key point for learners:

When the QRS duration exceeds 200 msec, and is not known to be so at baseline, you should assume severe hyperkalemia and/or sodium channel blockade toxicity until proven otherwise.


Other related cases:

A patient with cardiac arrest, ROSC, and right bundle branch block (RBBB).




An elderly patient with syncope, dyspnea, and weakness, but no Chest Pain, and mild hyperkalemia




Is This a Simple Paced Rhythm?

NO.
the K is 6.8 and it results in a paced sine wave



Is This a Simple Right Bundle Branch Block?


Here is a case of RBBB with a K of 7.9 and QRS duration of 194 ms.


Is this just right bundle branch block?

This ECG was texted to me with the text:

"There is a history of RBBB but we do not have an image to compare this with.  I interpret as RBBB with atrial fib.  Anything else?"




Hyperkalemia in the setting of Left Bundle Branch Block

A dialysis patient presented with vomiting.  He has  known baseline left bundle branch block.  Here is his initial ECG:
There is left bundle branch block, with a QRS duration of 220 ms according to the computer analysis.








Monday, May 26, 2025

What happens when a clinic does not have troponin testing for chest pain patients? Stress testing?

Written by Willy Frick

 — Commentary added below on 6/4/2025 by Ken Grauer regarding ETT


A 90 year old man with history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and stroke with mild memory difficulty presented to his primary care clinic complaining of left shoulder pain radiating down the arm. He said the pain is often produced by activity, but sometimes comes on at rest. He walks to the post office daily and cuts his own grass. His primary care physician referred him for stress testing. His clinic ECG is shown.

ECG 1
What do you think?









With the history of exertional shoulder pain, I thought this was highly suspicious for inferolateral reperfusion. 

I sent this to Dr. Smith, and he said "It looks reperfused."

The Queen of Hearts diagnoses reperfusion:

Specifically, we see biphasic T waves in II, III, aVF, and to some extent in V5-V6.


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The patient was set up for an outpatient stress test.

Smith comment: No patient with symptoms of ACS should go without troponin testing.  If a patient arrives at a clinic that does not have that capability, he/she should be sent to an Emergency Department.

When the patient arrived for stress testing a few weeks later, he was asymptomatic. He said that since the stress test was ordered, he had begun having symptoms more frequently, and not always related to exertion. His resting ECG on the day of the test is shown below.

ECG 2

Compared to the clinic ECG, this ECG shows progression of reperfusion findings. Without more information from the interceding period, we do not know if there have been more episodes of occlusion and reperfusion. Here is a side by side comparison highlighting dynamic change:

Smith: this is not necessarily "persistent reperfusion".  More likely, he has had several episodes of near occlusion (during which time he had symptoms) and it is "reperfused AGAIN."

Figure 1: Side by side comparison

In particular, we see:

  • The inferolateral T waves are now inverted, or more deeply inverted
  • The high lateral leads show reciprocal "overly upright" T waves
  • V2 and V3 (which may have been showing posterior reperfusion before) now definitely have overly upright T waves consistent with posterior reperfusion
In a world where OMI ECG findings are understood, there would be no need to perform this test. The history and ECGs are already diagnostic at this point. But in the world of STEMI, these ECGs are considered non-specific, so the patient instead submits to stress testing with the risk that entails.

What follows are 24 consecutive ECGs during treadmill exercise. At the top of each ECG is information about the test explained in the figure below:

Figure 2: Exercise test legend

Here are the ECGs in order.









At this point, the patient stopped the test due to chest discomfort. Obvious inferior OMI. The following ECGs show recovery.


















At the conclusion of recovery, we see return of reperfusion morphology. The chest discomfort resolved completely. The patient was loaded with aspirin and clopidogrel and underwent coronary angiography.

Video 1: RCA prior to intervention

He received overlapping stents covering the entire length of the RCA into the PDA.

Video 2: RCA after intervention

Troponin I obtained 90 minutes post peak stress was 0.012 ng/mL (ref. <0.033). Repeat the next morning was 0.020 ng/mL, higher but still within the reference range. It is possible that troponin may have briefly risen above the reference range in between these measurements (if it had been checked). One final ECG obtained the day after PCI is shown below. It shows persistent reperfusion.

ECG 3: One day after intervention

Discussion

To begin, kudos to the primary care physician for sniffing out this high risk patient. In a 90 year old patient, symptoms can be very muted. This is not just true with cardiovascular disease, but with everything. You must maintain a much higher index of suspicion in elderly patients. In this case, exertional shoulder pain is very worrisome, especially with radiation into the arm. She recognized that and acted accordingly.

Second, what a beautiful example of dynamic ECG change. I've included representative waveforms from the inferior leads before stress, at peak stress, and after recovery (post).

Figure 3: Serial comparison

We see the expected evolution of ST-T changes. But notice also that the voltage is attenuated at peak stress and recovers post stress. Ischemia routinely attenuates voltage, which is yet another reason why arbitrary millimeter rules are preposterous.

Finally, what do we call this and what is the best treatment? There are three related but distinct questions worth asking ourselves.

1. Was this a myocardial infarction?

Since the patient's troponin never rose above the reference range, it is not a myocardial infarction by definition. But as Dr. Smith said to me, "Sometimes you get a rise and fall beneath the 99% URL. There’s nothing magic about the 99% URL. It is just a definition." This patient apparently had a rise (from 0.012 ng/mL to 0.020 ng/mL) which I suspect is more than just lab error.


2. Was there plaque rupture?

There is no clear angiographic evidence of plaque rupture at time of angiogram. (However, as Dr. Smith points out it probably did occur at some point in the recent past.) We often say the way to know for sure is with intravascular imaging (such as intravascular ultrasound [IVUS] or optical coherence tomography [OCT]). But even that is not always definitive for several reasons. For example, this patient had heavily calcified disease, and the IVUS catheter would not pass into the distal vessel before at least some preliminary balloon angioplasty. The interventionalist did make appropriate use of IVUS, but even after ballooning he was not able to pass the IVUS into the distal vessel. So, even if he saw a plaque rupture (which he did not report), you would not know for sure if that was pre-existing or if it occurred after initial ballooning. Thus, this is a question with an unknown answer. However, based on the subacute presentation, my opinion is that it is unlikely.

Smith: I think plaque rupture is by far most likely.  The patient had symptoms at rest.  This is likely due to intermittent brief occlusion or downstream showering of platelet-fibrin aggregates from a disrupted plaque.  With troponins below the 99th percentile, this is then "Unstable Angina."  But I also think that, if troponins had been measured at the clinic visit, then they would have been elevated and the diagnosis would have been "Reperfused OMI" (or also possibly "NOMI.")

3. Is this stable angina?

Unstable angina is often thought of as biomarker negative acute coronary syndrome. So if we think plaque rupture is unlikely, then ostensibly this must be stable angina which should be managed medically which is the lesson we learned from ISCHEMIA, right?

I would argue that this is a more clinically determined unstable angina. I do not think there was plaque rupture, at least on the day of the stress test. But I think a 90 year old who develops transmural inferior ischemia walking 1.6 mph at a 12% grade is clinically unstable. In fact, the patient reported that his symptoms were coming on more frequently, including at rest. To me, this must be considered unstable angina, and he is very likely to benefit from intervention. Fortunately, he did well and was discharged home the following day.

In summary,

I had many interesting discussions with Dr. Smith and others about what exactly to call this. Some of this hair splitting is probably beyond the point. What matters is that the patient had unstable ischemic symptoms and ECG evidence of occlusion. In an ideal world, he would have come in for an angiogram weeks prior based on symptoms and ECG. But he was lucky and did not apparently sustain a large infarct prior to PCI. If the primary care physician had had access to QOH, the workup and treatment could have been expedited.



 
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MY Comment, by KEN GRAUER, MD (6/4/2025):

===================================
As a family physician educator who performed and taught ETT (Exercise Treadmill Testing) locally and nationally to my specialty during the 30 years I served as full-time Family Medicine Faculty at our Residency Program — I felt a need to add a comment to the above insightful presentation by Dr. Frick.
  • NOTE: My comment comes late. (This case was published on 5/26/2025). I am unable to tell from the description who performed the ETT (ie, Depending on the state, local practice and/or institution privileging — it could have been a primary care clinician or internist or cardiologist who did the ETT). Clinician credentials are not the point. The point is simply that there is much that must be learned from this case.

The Pre-ETT ECGs:
The above discussion is instructive between Drs. Frick and Smith regarding ECG #1 ( = the initial 12-lead ECG from the primary care clinic) — and ECG #2 ( = the repeat ECG, done a few weeks later, just before beginning the ETT).

For clarity — I repeat Dr. Frick's Figure-1, in which he provides side-by-side comparison between ECG #1 and ECG #2.
  • Drs. Frick and Smith make the essential point that given the history in this 90-year old man with radiating left shoulder pain over some period of time — that ECG #1 strongly suggests that the patient has had a recent OMI, and his clinic ECG is now clearly showing ST-T wave changes of reperfusion.
  • From a primary care perspective — this patient should have been admitted to the hospital based on the above history and the abnormal ST-T wave changes in ECG #1, as described by Dr. Frick. Although subtle — in a patient with symtoms — the T wave inversion in leads III,aVF; V5,V6 should not be missed.
  • As per Dr. Frick — symptoms of acute MI often are difficult to assess in elderly patients. That said — this patient remains symptomatic (with left shoulder pain radiating down the arm that is often produced by activity). Depending on when his MI occurred — Troponin may or may not still be elevated. In an older patient with an abnormal ECG who continues "often" with anginal-equivalent symptoms on exercise — This patient should be directly admitted to the hospital until adequate evaluation can determine if he is stable (Ideally, given the history — this patient should have been admitted to the hospital from the primary care clinic — cardiology should be immediately consulted — and cardiac cath should be performed no later than the next day to define the anatomy and perform PCI if/as indicated).
  • In any event — an ETT is not the appropriate test to order. This is because the baseline ECG ( ECG #1) is clearly abnormal. When ST-T waves are abnormally flat, or there is baseline T wave inversion — sensitivity of an ETT is significantly reduced, because it will be so much harder to interpret superimposed ischemia. This is especially true in a 90-year old in whom the level of exercise achieved is likely to be low (making it that much more difficult to see additional ischemic change on top of an abnormal baseline tracing).

Luckily, despite more frequent occurrence of his symptoms — this patient survived for several weeks until it was finally time for his ETT.
  • As per Dr. Frick's Figure-1 in which he compares ECG #1 with ECG #2 — there has been an increase in the ST-T wave abnormalities. Regardless of whether these ST-T wave changes reflect progression of reperfusion changes or recurrent episodes of coronary occlusion — NO ETT should have been done given the increase in ST-T wave abnormalities that are now seen in ECG #2! 
  • Instead, given the history that this patient "has begun having symptoms more frequently" since ECG #1 was done — and, given that ECG #2 now shows an increase in ST-T wave abnormalities — the ETT should have been cancelled — and the patient taken to cardiac cath for definitive diagnosis and treatment.

Figure-1 by Dr. Frick: Side-by-side comparison of ECG #1 and ECG #2 in today's case.


Lessons to Learn from the ETT that was Done:
The above said — an ETT was done. While I fully acknowledge that I reviewed this case in the comfort of my home office in front of my large computer screen — there are lessons that must be learned from this ETT that was done.

For clarity in Figure-4 — I have excerpted leads III and aVF in 6 of the tracings that Dr. Frick showed above (taken between 2:50 minutes in Stage 2 — and 7:23 minutes when the ETT was stopped).
  • Things move fast during an ETT. As a result — it is essential to know what your end point of the ETT will be before you begin the test. This is especially true in today's case given this patient's advanced age (90 years) — his history of worsening anginal-equivalent symptoms — and his abnormal ECGs (with an increase in ST-T wave abnormalities in ECG #2 compared to ECG #1).
  • The only reason for possibly doing an ETT on this patient — would be if you were not yet sure that cardiac cath is needed. That means — the moment you see anything on this ETT that suggests ischemic CP (Chest Pain) with exercise — you should STOP the test. This is because it will be dangerous to continue exercise beyond this point (since you do not want to precipitate an MI).

There is more to assess on an ETT than simply the ECG recordings. We need to pay attention to: i) Target Heart Rateii) Blood Pressure response during exercise; iii) Patient Symptoms during the test; andiv) How the Patient "Looks" during the test.
  • The patient's resting heart rate (as seen on ECG #2 — done just before the test) — is just under 60/minute. As a rough estimate — maximal predicted heart rate = 220 — Age ( = 220 — 90 = 130/minute). Assuming no other reason for stopping an ETT — the goal is to obtain ≥85% max. predicted HR — which for this 90-year old man would be 111/minute
  • To Emphasize — The ETT does not need to continue until ≥85% of max. predicted HR is achieved IF other parameters suggest stopping the test before this point.
  • This patient's BP = 177/76 at 2:50 minutes in Stage 2. I see no further indication of his BP until 0:14 minutes in recovery. It's important to appreciate that if ever BP drops during an ETT for assessment of ischemia — that the ETT must be immediately stopped at that point, because this suggests acute cardiac failure. (The fact that the BP in Recovery remained high suggests that this patient's BP did not drop during exercise — but BP should have been frequently checked during the ETT of a patient like this one).
  • If an ETT was to be done on a patient such as this one — it's essential to watch the patient intensely throughout the entire test — ready to stop at any point: i) If there are potential ischemic ST-T wave changes; ii) If this patient gets CP during the test; and/oriii) If despite denying CP — the patient looks like they are becoming symptomatic during exercise. But there is no notation on any of these ETT tracings as how the patient looks, nor whether or not the patient had any CP during the test. Did this patient's CP only suddenly begin at 7:23, when the test was stopped?

ST-T Wave Changes that were Missed During ETT:
I draw attention to the following:
  • There is a tremendous amount of artifact on each of these ECG tracings obtained during exercise. Sometimes this amount of artifact is unavoidable — but we must appreciate how much more difficult it becomes to interpret these ETT tracings when there is so much artifact. Our threshold for stopping the ETT needs to be lowered when there is this much artifact — or we risk missing the evolution of an acute MI under our eyes.
  • Despite the artifact present in the 2:50 minute tracing — I thought the ST-T waves were essentially isoelectric.
  • Compared to this 2:50 minute tracing — Isn't there at least a hint of beginning ST elevation in leads III and aVF at 3:50 minutes?
  • At 4:50 minutes — Isn't the suggestion of ST elevation in III and aVF becoming more clear?
  • At 5:50 minutes — Is there still doubt about ST elevation increasing in these leads?
  • At 6:50 minutes — Don't we see even more ST elevation?
  • P.S. — There is no need to wait precisely for the next minute IF you see suspicious ST-T wave abnormalities beginning to develop. Best to get more frequent tracings ...
  • P.P.S. — It is not at all common to see ST elevation on an ETT. When you do — this suggests a localized wall motion abnormality (If you truly see ST elevation during an ETT of a patient with suspected ischemia — STOP the ETT! ).

Editorial Comments:
As we were not there during the ETT — it's impossible to know exactly what transpired. But we need to learn from this case.
  • An ETT should not have been done.
  • If an ETT was done — the threshold for stopping the test should have been greatly lowered — with attention to stopping the test the moment the test became positive.
  • It is dangerous to continue exercise in a patient like this one if artifact is preventing you from appreciating increasingly abnormal ST-T wave changes.
  • Realize that diagnostic ECG changes often occur in recovery — especially when the patient has exercised to ≥85% max. predicted HR (ie, Why push a high-risk 90-year old man beyond this level?).

Figure-4: Leads III and aVF at 6 points during the ETT (from 2:50 minutes in Stage 2 — until the test was stopped at 7:23 minutes).


 

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