Wednesday, May 21, 2025

The diagnosis is NSTEMI, a worthless diagnosis which harms patients.

 Written by Magnus Nossen, with many comments by Smith


A 50-something male with a medical hx of type I diabetes and hypertension presented to the ED with complaints of chest pain. The ECG below is recorded. 
  • What are your concerns if any, and how would you manage this patient?

6 x 2 format
ECG #1 recorded on admission













I sent this to Dr. Smith with no information, and he responded immediately with "SAF, subtle but aVL is unmistakable."

"SAF" means "South Africa Flag" sign.  This is a sign of First Diagonal Occlusion (OMI).  See below.  You actually can't see the SAF in 6x2 format. You will see it below after transformation to the 3x4 format.

First of all this patient has a very high pre-test probability of having a myocardial infarction as he has type I diabetes, hypertension, and is now presenting with acute onset chest pain. Despite not showing any significant ST segment elevation — this ECG is diagnostic of OMI. Expert interpreters who are trained in recognizing OMI will have no problem stating with a high degree of confidence that this ECG is consistent with occlusion myocardial infarction. As with many cases of OMI, the ST segment changes are subtle. Rather than relying on absolute ST segment change and millimeter criteria — it is the sum of all findings that make the ECG diagnostic. 

Because the ECG does not have "diagnostic" ST Elevation, this patient was admitted with a diagnosis of NSTEMI, but only after an admission troponin I returned elevated at 102ng/L (ref value <34ng/L). The repeat troponin I after 3 hours returned at 429ng/L.  The patient was given morphine for pain, which decreased the pain, but did not resolve it.  Morphine is a terrible mistake unless you are already committed to the cath lab.

"NSTEMI" implies that the patient does not need emergent intervention, even when it is an OMI which does need emergent intervention (see long discussion below).

Actually, however, NSTEMI with persistent pain is a universally agreed upon, and guideline recommended, indication for intervention, but it is rarely followed (only 6% of the time in the only study).

_________

Morphine abstract:

Bracey, A.  Meyers HP.  Smith SW.  Wei L. Singer DD.  Singer A.  Association between opioid analgesia and delays to cardiac catheterization of patients with occlusion Myocardial Infarctions. Academic Emergency Medicine 27(S1): S220; May 2020.  Abstract 556.
Main result: STEMI(-) OMI Patients

65 (23.9%) patients were found to have STEMI(-) occlusion myocardial infarction (OMI) at the time of cardiac catheterization. The 45 patients with STEMI(-) OMI without pre-cath opioids had a door-to-balloon time of 75 minutes, vs. 684 minutes for the 25 STEMI(-) OMI with pre-cath opioids.



Monday, May 19, 2025

Can you spot this subtle but important ECG finding in a patient with resolved chest pain?

This was written by Mark Hellerman, a Cardiology Fellow at Stony Brook.

He has a bunch of great videos on OMI and other cardiology topics here.


The Case: 

A 60 year old man with no reported medical history presents to the ED for evaluation of chest pain. 


For the past 3 days he has been experiencing substernal, exertional chest pain that resolves with rest. 


At the time of evaluation in the emergency department he is pain free at which time the following ECG is obtained: 




The above tracing and clinical vignette were sent to Dr. Smith who responded with the following: 


“It looks like a reperfused inferior and lateral OMI. The tall T waves in V1-V3 might represent reperfusion of the posterior wall as well”



The figure below highlights (in red) the subtle inferior and lateral reperfusion T wave pattern observed by Dr. Smith 



Unfortunately, the PMCardio AI EKG Queen of Hearts model did not detect reperfusion or active OMI.


Initial high-sensitivity cardiac troponin T (hs-cTnT) value returned at 24 ng/L (2 ng/L above the 99th percentile for men according to the package insert).


3 hours later, repeat hs-cTnT returned at 20 ng/L (2 ng/L below the 99th percentile).


8 hours after presentation hs-cTnT returned at 18 ng/L and the following ECG was obtained: 



 

The patient was admitted to the cardiology service for further workup of his chest pain


12 hours after presentation the patient developed lightheadedness and nausea. Vitals revealed a blood pressure of 81/53. The following ECG was obtained:  



The T-waves are now upright ("pseudo" normal)
This is a sign of re-occlusion (in this case, the re-occlusion is not subtle)  


The cath lab was immediately activated. A repeat troponin sample was collected at this time which eventually returned with a value of 17 ng/L. While awaiting for the cath lab team to arrive the following ECG was obtained: 




Angiography revealed 100% thrombotic occlusion of the proximal (dominant) RCA: 





A repeat ECG was obtained 1 hour after PCI: 


Once again we see subtle biphasic terminal T wave inversion in the inferior and lateral territories -- this time associated with reperfusion after PCI.


An echocardiogram obtained the following day revealed a normal ejection with no wall motion abnormalities.


Discussion: 


This case reminds us of two important pearls: 


  1. Reperfusion pattern on ECG can be subtle, but when identified, can help us more thoughtfully risk stratify – and thus manage – patients who present with recent anginal symptoms.

  2. Unstable Angina (UA) still exists, even in the era of high-sensitivity cardiac troponin assays

Reperfusion pattern: 


As reviewed in previous posts, Wellens' syndrome is a syndrome of transient occlusion myocardial infarction (OMI) affecting the anterior wall, in which the ECG was recorded not at the time of the anginal symptoms, but only after spontaneous resolution of those symptoms (corresponding to spontaneous coronary reperfusion) -- at which time the ECG shows reperfusion T-waves with preservation of R-waves.


When learning about Wellens' syndrome, many trainees are taught only to recognize the “Pattern B” morphology (characterized by deep symmetric T-wave inversion), failing to appreciate that reperfusion T waves exist on a spectrum -- often evolving from more subtle biphasic terminal T-wave inversion characteristic of “Pattern A” (see figure below).


While the anterior precordial T waves characteristic of Wellens' syndrome represent an important subset of reperfusion T waves (corresponding to reperfusion of the anterior myocardial wall), reperfusion T waves can be found in leads corresponding to any myocardial territory and clue you in to recent reperfusion in that region.  




Adapted from Dr. Smith's Teaching Images for "The OMI Progression on ECG"


Smith: Pattern A Wellens' evolves to Pattern B over time, if you record enough ECGs.  See here:

More examples of subtle “Type A Pattern” reperfusion waves can been viewed in the following posts: 



More cases


More examples of “Type B Pattern” reperfusion waves can be viewed in the following posts: 


Here are more cases of Wellens' of the inferior, lateral, or posterior walls.



Because this ECG pattern is associated with a high rate of coronary reocclusion and subsequent transmural MI, these patients should be monitored closely with prompt administration of antiplatelets and continuous heparin while awaiting angiography.  Threshold for serial ECG should be very low.  


The figure below highlights the subtle inferior terminal T wave inversion in this case, which -- in the clinical context of a patient presenting shortly after spontaneous resolution of anginal chest pain -- should make you consider the possibility that it represents a reperfusion pattern (note that a similar pattern emerges after reperfusion with PCI):



Unstable Angina


The advent of the high-sensitivity troponin assay led many to wonder if it would usher out the era of unstable angina.  While this assay seems to have significantly reduced the incidence of UA, it has not yet eliminated it completely.


While “myocardial injury” was technically present on admission in this case (as the first troponin value was 2 ng/L above the 99th percentile sex-specific cutoff), and thus some may argue his presentation should not be classified as “unstable angina,” I would argue that it’s not hard to imagine a scenario where the patient presented to the ED just a bit later when the troponin concentration would have likely been below the 99th percentile.


Moreover, it is well established that age also influences troponin concentration. At the age of 60 years, a hs-cTnT level of 24 ng/L seems to be below the 99th percentile upper reference limit (see figure below from a study which included a healthy reference population of 2,746 individuals which found that men 60 years of age and older had a 99th percentile upper reference limit 33 ng/L).  For this reason I think it is reasonable to classify the presenting diagnosis of the patient in this case as “unstable angina” when we take into account sex AND age-specific hs-cTnT concentration thresholds.   


This point is worth highlighting as a low initial troponin concentration/trend -- even in the era of high sensitivity troponin -- should not provide false reassurance when clinical context remains concerning. It was fortunate that this patient was just down the hall from the cardiac catherization lab during the subsequent plaque rupture event where he made excellent door-to-balloon time.



The Case


In this case, it is likely that the patient auto-lysed the right coronary lesion prior to presentation to the ED.  The occlusion was likely too brief to injure enough myocardium to produce an impressive troponin leak.  Autolysis and reperfusion of the right coronary artery prior to ED presentation was likely responsible for the subtle biphasic terminal T wave inversion seen on his presenting ECG. 12 hours after presentation the right coronary artery likely RE-occluded, manifesting in the clear ST segment elevation myocardial infarction seen at 2:00 AM.







===================================

MY Comment, by KEN GRAUER, MD (5/19/2025):

===================================
I found today's case by Dr. Hellerman especially interesting for a number of reasons. In addition to questions regarding the changing concept of unstable angina and potential subtleties in recognizing reperfusion patterns — I'll add the deceptive role that LVH (Left Ventricular Hypertrophymay play in ECG assessment of patients with ACS (Acute Coronary Syndromes).

Voltage for LVH is present in today's initial ECG — that I've reproduced and labeled in Figure-1.
  • I've presented "My Take" regarding ECG Criteria for LVH on a number of occasions (See My Comment at the bottom of the page in the June 20, 2020 postamong others). As a user-friendly reminder of LVH voltage criteria and of ST-T wave changes of LV "strain" — I've added Figure-2 and Figure-3 in an ADDENDUM below.

Figure-1: I've labeled the initial ECG in today's case.


LVH is Present in Figure-1:
Detection of voltage for LVH is rendered difficult in Figure-1 by overlap of the deep S wave in lead aVR — with the tall R wave in lead aVL.
  • For clarity — I've highlighted in RED an outline of the limits of the QRS complex in lead aVL, in which the R wave satisfies voltage criteria in this lead by attaining a height of 15 mm.
  • Support that this is a real finding — is forthcoming from the tall R wave in lead I (that measures 17 mm— which with the relatively deep S wave in lead III (of 11 mm) — surpasses the sometimes used LVH voltage criterion of 25 mm for the sum of these 2 leads.
  • The most commonly satisfied voltage criterion (Deepest S in V1,V2 + tallest R in V5,V6 ≥35 mm) — is not fulfilled in ECG #1. However, it is common for patients with LVH not to satisfy all of the criteria that I've listed in Figure-2.

How is Assessment of LVH Relevant in Today's Case?
Today's patient is a previously healthy 60-year old man who presents to the ED for new CP (Chest Pain).
  • Despite lack of a previous medical history — this 60-year old man presents with classic angina (ie, 3 days of exertional CP that resolves with rest). And, since this CP apparently is a new symptom — this fulfills one definition of "unstable" angina (namely, that this patient is experiencing new angina) — with the "alarm" symptom being that this 3-day history of CP has become worrisome enough to this patient to prompt presentation in the ED.
  • Bottom Line: Regardless of what this patient's initial ECG and Troponin reveal — the above symptom complex is consistent with unstable angina, and merits prompt evaluation.

BUT — Today's patient does not have a "normal" ECG. Instead — this patient manifests voltage for LVH and abnormal ST-T wave changes in multiple leads.
  • There is ST elevation and larger-than-expected positive T waves in leads V1 and V2Is this acute ST elevation in a patient with CP? — OR — Could this be LV "strain" in a patient with LVH in whom rather than the lateral leads, we are seeing LV "strain" in anterior leads? (See My Comment in the February 6, 2020 post for discussion of this important clinical question).
  • My Thought: The amount of J-point elevation and the dimensions of the T wave in lead V2 look larger-than-I'd-typically-expect given modest depth of the S wave in this lead.

  • There is shallow T wave inversion in lead V6 — with subtle ST coving followed by shallow terminal T wave inversion in lead V5. Although the T inversion in V6 might be consistent with LV "strain" — R wave amplitude in this lateral chest lead is minimal (ie, not what we should expect if the T wave inversion was from LVH).
  • LV "strain" should not produce the ST coving that we see in lead V5.

In the limb leads:
  • There is shallow T wave inversion in both leads III and aVF. While some T wave inversion may normally be seen in lead III and/or lead aVF when the QRS is predominantly negative — lead III is predominantly positive, and the ST coving that appears in this lead is not normally seen.
  • Finally, T waves are positive in the 2 lateral limb leads ( leads I and aVL) that manifest voltage criteria for LVH (ie, So why should there be LV "strain" in lead V6 which has a tiny R wave — but not in leads I and aVL which have greatest R wave amplitude?).

Bottom Line: Although voltage criteria for LVH are satisfied in today's initial ECG — ST-T waves are "off" for the finding of LV "strain". And while I thought that ECG #1 by itself was non-diagnostic — there clearly is need for prompt additional evaluation of this patient.
  • Finding a prior ECG on today's patient might prove invaluable (ie, If different from ECG #1 — a previous ECG might confirm "dynamic" ST-T wave changes indicative of an ongoing acute event).
  • In the absence of a prior ECG for comparison — Given the clinical history of unstable angina in association with this patient's abnormal initial ECG — and, the slight initial elevated hs-Troponin value — prompt cath could have been justified.
  • At the least — repeat ECGs (long before 8 additional hours had passed) were indicated — and could have confirmed an ongoing event.

============================  
ADDENDUM to Today's Post:
============================  

Regarding ECG Criteria for LVH:
There are many ECG criteria for the diagnosis of LVH. I list those that I favor in Figure-2 — and discuss in detail the rationale for my approach to the ECG diagnosis of LVH at THIS LINK.
  • There is a rough (but far-from-perfect) correlation between the relative size of the QRS complex on ECG — and the degree of LV chamber enlargement. Clinically — One can glean insight from the ECG as to the relative amount of LV chamber enlargement based on: i) HOW MUCH voltage is increased by, according to criteria in Figure-2; andii) the presence and extent of ST-T wave changes consistent with either “strain” or a “strain equivalent” (as shown below in Figure-3).

Figure-2: Criteria I favor for the ECG diagnosis of LVH.

=================================

Regarding LV "Strain" (vs a "Strain Equivalent" ):

Figure-3: Illustration and description of LV “strain” and a “strain equivalent” pattern.



 





Saturday, May 17, 2025

Chest pain, normal ECG, and serial undetectable high sensitivity troponins. Should we do further testing?

Many authors state that if troponins are undetectable and ECG is normal, no further testing should be done.  For example, in JACC:

Bandstein N, Ljung R, Johansson M, Holzmann MJ. Undetectable high-sensitivity cardiac troponin T level in the emergency department and risk of myocardial infarction. J Am Coll Cardiol [Internet] 2014;63(23):2569–78. Available from: http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/j.jacc.2014.03.017

Conclusions

All patients with chest pain who have an initial hs-cTnT level of <5 ng/l and no signs of ischemia on an ECG have a minimal risk of MI or death within 30 days, and can be safely discharged directly from the ED.   


It is very dangerous to make such general definite statements: "All patients...."


Case

A 70-something with history of hyperlipidemia and chronic back pain presented to the emergency department with chest pain.  

Patient c/o left sided chest pain described as squeezing intermittently for 10 days.  One note stated that there is no association with exertion and that it comes without a known trigger, but another stated that there is association with exertion.  Last episode of chest pain was 2 days prior.  Stated able to go up stairs without difficulty.  No other associated symptoms.  Denied nausea, diaphoresis, shortness of breath, radiation of pain.   Pain started 1.5 weeks ago, patient notes more discomfort than pain; episodes last 20-30 seconds. Patient has known familial hx of cardiac disease (father with angina) 

ECG

What do you think?  What would you do?







Let's calculate a couple risk scores: HEART score and EDACS (ED Assessment of Chest Pain) Scores:


HEART Score for Major Cardiac Events: 4 points (Moderate risk)

Moderate Score (4-6 points)

Risk of Major Adverse Cardiac Events (MACE) at 30 days = 12-16.6%.

History —> 1 = Moderately suspicious (I put this because the pain lasts for only 20-30 seconds, and ischemic pain usually lasts a few minutes at least)

EKG —> 0 = Normal

Age —> 2 = ≥65

Risk factors —> 1 = 1-2 risk factors

Initial troponin —> 0 = ≤normal limit


EDACS:  22 points, Not low risk. 

Age —> 78 years

Sex —> 6 = Male

Diaphoresis —> 0 = No

Pain radiates to arm, shoulder, neck, or jaw —> 0 = No

Pain occurred or worsened with inspiration —> 0 = No

Pain is reproduced by palpation —> 0 = No


Here is interesting data from HIGH-STEACS, using Abbott Architect hs-cTnI assay.

In this study, using risk scores had very little utility

Chapman AR, Hesse K, Andrews J, et al. High-Sensitivity Cardiac Troponin I and Clinical Risk Scores in Patients With Suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome. Circulation [Internet] 2018;138(16):1654–65. Available from: http://dx.doi.org/10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.118.036426   

--Non-ischemic ECG
--Symptoms >3 hours to blood draw AND initial hs-cTnI <5 ng/L or
--Any duration of pain and inital value <URL (16 ng/L, women, 34 ng/L men) and 3 hour delta <3 ng/L.
--Identified 65% as low risk for death/MI at 30 days, with 99.7% NPV (Sensitivity 98.7%)
--Use of HEART or EDACS score:
   --NPV: HEART: 99.9 vs. 99.7 for EDACS
   --% Ruled out: Only 24% for HEART, 41% for EDACS.
--So using the scores resulted in minimal change in NPV, but many fewer ruled out.

Why use the scores then?
1. If pain is so brief that you could not possibly expect the troponin to be elevated (in this case, 20-30 seconds)
2. This study looked for death or MI, but 30 day MACE also includes PCI!
3. Many patients do not fit the protocol. Example: Initial trop 10 ng/L and delta of 5 ng/L.


Does a negative ECG and 2 undetectable troponins rule out ACS?  
Again, you can only expect troponins to be elevated if there was sufficient duration of pain.  No one has ever determined what is a sufficient duration.  

Here is an interesting study from Circulation:
Árnadóttir Á, Pedersen S, Bo Hasselbalch R, et al. Temporal Release of High-Sensitivity CardiacTroponin T and I and Copeptin After Brief InducedCoronary Artery Balloon Occlusion in Humans. Circulation [Internet] 2021;143(11):1095–104. Available from: http://dx.doi.org/10.1161/CIRCULATIONAHA.120.046574

Thirty-four patients (median age, 60 years [interquartile range, 51–64]; 15 men, 43%) with angiographically normal coronary arteries were randomly assigned into 4 groups with different durations of induced myocardial ischemia (0, 30, 60, 90 s). Ischemia was induced by inflating a balloon in the left anterior descending artery between the first and second diagonal branch.

Using the cTnT, hscTnI (Siemens), and hs-cTnI (Abbott) concentrations at 0 and 180 minutes, 1 (11%), 0, and 0 patients from the 60-s ischemia group and 5 (63%), 2 (25%), and 1 (11%) from the 90-s ischemia group, respectively, fulfilled criteria for a biochemical myocardial infarction.

So very brief TOTAL Occlusion of less than 90 seconds usually will not have elevated troponins. They did usually have significant deltas, however.

So what should we do for this patient who has elevated risk scores and a troponin that cannot be trusted because the duration of pain was too short?  
            --CT Coronary angiogram

The patient underwent CT Coronary Angiogram: Calcium score was 3600!

9 hours later:



Echo was normal


Angiogram:

Severe bilateral coronary calcium and severe two-vessel obstructive CAD involving the left main and ostial-proximal LAD


The patient underwent successful coronary artery bypass grafting



Here are 5 more cases of "Unstable Angina in the Era of High Sensitivity Troponin

Most of these could be discerned from the ECG





===================================

MY Comment, by KEN GRAUER, MD (5/17/2025):

===================================
When I had the opportunity to review today's case — the information I was provided with included the following:
  • The patient is a 70-year old man.
  • A "PMH" (Past Medical History) consisting of hyperlipidemia and chronic back pain — but without mention of known heart disease.
  • A "CC" (Chief Complaint) of CP (Chest Pain).
  • 2 historical accounts (apparently made by 2 different clinicians) of this patient's "HPI" (History of Present Illness). 
    • In HPI Account #1 — CP was "squeezing" and left-sided, occurring intermittently over the previous 10 days and not associated with exertion.
    • In HPI Account #2 — CP was more of a "discomfort" than pain — lasting only 20-30 seconds over the previous 1.5 weeks — with this CP made worse by exertion.

============================
Editorial Notes ( = My Perspective as "Devil's Advocate" on this Case ... ):
============================
Not knowing if more clinical information (or validation) was obtained since my original review of today’s case — I thought it worthwhile to present my thoughts based on the above information that was given me at the time of my initial interpretation of today's 2 ECGs.
  • The difference for the HPI (as described in the notes from 2 different clinicians who each interviewed this same patient) — is the reason why I have never found numeric risk assessment calculations useful (The HEART and EDACS Scores applied in today's case revealing at least moderate risk — which practically speaking, should be immediately evident without formal scoring given the age of 70 for this man who comes to the ED because of new CP).
  • Converting the HPI into a numeric assessment is a subjective exercise — which I find difficult to place trust in when 2 capable clinicians come up with different assessments of the KEY parameter as to whether or not CP is made worse with exercise. Missing from HPI Account #2 are the "fine points" in the history (ie, Even if exercise-induced CP is "short-lived" — if every time the patient walks just a little bit faster he has to stop because this slight extra effort regularly precipitates CP — this may indeed represent angina).
  • Statistically — a history of angina regularly precipitated by extra effort in a 70-year old man suggests underlying coronary disease until you prove otherwise.
  • Conceptually — there is a major misunderstanding inherent in the approach by many in the ED. Focus is typically placed primarily (if not solely) on ruling out an acute event, which is done by negative serial Troponins and non-acute serial ECGs. But rather than an acute OMI — many patients who seek acute medical care have non-infarction angina that does not necessarily require immediate cath, but which does require timely evaluation. In my experience — that evaluation often gets dropped once the patient is discharged with negative Troponins.

Were the 2 ECGs in Today's Case "Normal"?
The other problem I have always had with numeric risk assessment scores on patients with CP — is that ECG assessment is reduced to a numeric rating. In today's case — the HEART Score rated the initial ECG as "normal" ( = a 0 numeric rating).

For clarity in Figure-1 — I've reproduced the 2 ECGs in today's case.
  • Unfortunately — no information is provided as to the presence or relative severity of CP at the time that these 2 ECGs were recorded. As we often emphasize — this is critical information, since our interpretation of ECG #1 would dramtically differ if the patient had ongoing 10/10 CP vs if the CP that prompted his ED visit had greatly decreased (or completely resolved) at the time ECG #1 was recorded.

While I completely agree that ECG #1 is non-diagnostic of an acute event — I maintain that it is not "normal".
  • While true that T wave inversion is not necessarily an abnormal finding in leads III and aVF when the QRS complex is predominantly negative in these leads — IF this T wave inversion was a new finding that correlates to reduced CP at the time ECG #1 is recorded — then this ST-T wave finding may represent reperfusion changes.
  • And while there is no ST segment deviation in lead II of ECG #1 — the 10 looks we have of the ST-T wave in the long lead II rhythm strip of ECG #1 suggest that there is nonspecific (ie, nondiagnostic) ST segment straightening in this lead.
  • As we often emphasize — there is normally slight, gently upsloping ST elevation in leads V2 and V3. Instead — there is suggestion of nonspecific ST segment flattening with a non-elevated ST segment in lead V3 (isoelectric J-point seen within the 2 BLUE arrows).
  • In addition — I thought the ST-T wave in lead V2 (and possibly to a lesser extent in neighboring leads V3,V4) looked a little bit more “bulky” that I would normally expect given QRS size and appearance in these leads (ie, Could this represent a hyperacute T wave?).
  • To Emphasize: The above ECG findings are nondiagnostic of an acute event. They are extremely subtle. But in my opinion, in a 70-year old man who presents to the ED for new CP — ECG #1 is not a "normal" tracing — and depending on the timing and relative severity of symptoms when this tracing is recorded, may represent reperfusion ST-T wave changes in a patient with an infero-postero OMI (or even hyperacute changes in the anterior wall).

In my opinion — ECG #2 supports my suspicion that this patient may have had brief coronary occlusion and/or may have significant underlying coronary disease.
  • KEY Point: We are told that ECG #2 was obtained ~9 hours after ECG #1. Unfortnately, we don't know if additional ECGs were obtained in the interim, nor are we told what the patient's symptoms were like during these 9 hours.
  • Imagine this patient's CP is less at the time ECG #2 is recorded. Lead-by-lead comparison between the 2 tracings in Figure-1 shows subtle-but-real increased size of the negative T waves in leads III and aVF — and increased size of the positive T waves in leads I and aVL (BLUE arrows in ECG #2). If anything — the ST segment in leads II and V3 is flatter in ECG #2. I think it unlikely that all of these changes are the result of random variation. But unfortunately, we have lost our ability to try to correlate these ECG changes clinically — because there is no mention in the chart of the presence or relative severity of CP at the time ECG #2 is recorded.
  • P.S.: The V1 and V2 electrodes have been placed too high on the chest in ECG #2 (as suggested by the negative P wave and rSr' in these leads, with strong resemblance of QRST morphology of V1,V2 with aVR — as I review in My Comment at the bottom of the page in My Comment in the December 18, 2022 post). Recognizing this electrode lead misplacement is relevant to interpretation of ECG #2 — because it invalidates our assessment and comparison of leads V1,V2 in this repeat tracing.

BOTTOM Line: The need for cardiac cath followed by CABG was prompted in today's case by the finding of a very high CAC (Coronary Artery Calcium) Score on CT angiogram.
  • While fully acknowledging that my comments are made in the comfort of my home office with large computer screen and relaxing armchair — I suspect the need for cardiac cath could probably have been made much sooner (and without need for CAC Scoring on CT Angiogram) — simply by more focused history and more timely serial ECGs correlated to relative severity of the patient's symptoms. I believe it entirely possible that diagnostic ECG changes may have occurred during the time period between ECGs #1 and #2.

Figure-1: Comparison between the 2 ECGs in today's case.



 





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