A 50-something male with a history of COPD and substance use disorder who presented with generalized weakness and exacerbation of chronic back pain that is now radiating to his neck, and headache. He also developed nausea, alternating "hot and cold flashes", and generalized weakness the previous evening. He became anxious about his symptoms and then used crack cocaine as well as drank alcohol last night. His symptoms have persisted since then. He states he has felt short of breath since last night. He denies any chest pain, though notes he has a "odd" sensation in his chest.
Vital signs were normal and physical exam was unremarkable
He had an ECG recorded:
Let's look at V1-V3 side by side, presentation ECG on the left and old one on the right:
A Bedside echo (POCUS) was recorded:
Notice only the apex contracts; the base does not.
Is it just an apical wall motion abnormality due to LAD occlusion?
One might think so.
Angiogram:
--Large RCA without significant disease.
--Left main is large with mild proximal plaque
--Circumflex is a small caliber vessel and supplies two small OM branches
--There is a medium caliber, multi-branching ramus intermediate without
significant disease.
--LAD is a large caliber vessel that extends to the apex. No significant coronary artery disease is noted in the LAD, but the LAD is noted to dilate with IC nitroglycerin. LAD supplies four small caliber diagonal branches
--Left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) 24-27 mm Hg (elevated) in the setting of SBP < 85
Impression and recommendation:
--No significant obstructive coronary artery disease to explain elevated troponin, dyspnea and ECG changes
--No evidence for plaque rupture or vessel occlusion
--Significant elevated left ventricular filling pressure in the setting of relative hypotension
--Consider non-ischemic cardiomyopathy; troponin elevation could be caused by decrease coronary perfusion pressure in the setting of elevated LVEDP. Would not recommend further treatment of ACS
Contemporary troponin I peaked at 0.393 ng/mL, which is typical for a Non-OMI, but also for a variety of "acute myocardial injury" diagnoses.
An ECG was recorded the next AM:
Formal echo with contrast:
Possible atypical stress cardiomyopathy with sparing of the apex (It looked similar to the POCUS echo)
Assessment:
Intracoronary nitroglycerin suggests a component of coronary vasospasm, LVEDP was elevated to 24. Serial troponin testing was 0.227, 0.222, 0.343, 0.393 ng/mL. TTE revealed LVEF of 40-45% and possible atypical stress cardiomyopathy with sparing of the apex. There may be some contribution of cocaine toxicity to epicardial and microvascular coronary spasm.
Apical takotsubo or "Reverse" Takotsubo. (Of course it should not be called takotsubo because that name comes from the japanese octopus trap, which implies apical ballooning with good contraction of the base.)
Read about Reverse takotsubo here:
Respiratory Failure and ST Depression: Is there Posterior STEMI?
I know it’s only a technical point but don’t you think that the V1 and V3 connections were swapped in the first ECG?
ReplyDeleteDave, I noted that right from the start. There are about 7 comments on this when I made that observation! But thanks for sending comments.
DeleteInteresting case but would like to add that V1 to V3 are the wrong way around in the first ECG. Comparing the 3 ECGs confirms this. It doesn't change the findings but after seeing many ECGs with misplaced electrodes and leads connected to the wrong electrodes it is clear these leads are switched. Thanks Dr Smith for this case. Arron
ReplyDeleteAlready noted
DeleteHello Dr Smith, once again a great post of reverse Takotsubho stress cardiomyopathy. Your ECG discussion was quite educative. I have a small point to ask. Cocaine can cause hyperkalemia by
ReplyDeleteway of causing rhabdomyolysis and hyperkalemia is well known to cause pseudo-STEMI pattern especially in V1,V2 and V3. T waves are tall and too sharp in V1,V2 & V3, warranting urgent serum potassium measurement- also CPK level. With regards, Dr.R.Balasubramanian,PONDICHERRY-INDIA
Dr. Balasubramanian, the K was normal.
DeleteSteve...
ReplyDeleteIs it possible that lead wires for Leads V1 and V3 were interchanged on the ECG done in the ER? Leads I and V6 show classic RBBB morphologies, but there is no way you are going to have an S wave in V1 in any form of RBBB. I always make the point in my classes that the most RELIABLE lead for diagnosing RBBB is Lead I, because no matter how variant the morphology in V1, the QRS in Lead I will always look the same in RBBB (with very, very few exceptions).
Jerry, thanks for the comment. I already pointed that out. --Steve
DeleteJust to add to your great case, V1 and V3 have been switched in the first ECG. It doesn't change the outcome but helps to explain why the first ECG looks so unusual.
ReplyDeleteYes, I already pointed that out.
DeleteIn first ECG first 3 chest leads switched
ReplyDeleteI already pointed that out
Delete